(viii) "H and ἤπερ

(a) "H

[2090] In the Synoptists, , "or," is frequently used in Christ's words for rhetorical fulness or impressiveness ("tribulation or persecution," "under the bushel or under the bed" etc.)'. In John, where it seldom occurs, it is mostly outside Christ's words. In Christ's words it occurs only thrice. Once it introduces a direct question as follows:-xviii. 34 "Sayest thou this from thyself, or (~) did others say [it] to thee concerning me?"

[2091] This is our Lord's answer to Pilate's words, "Thou art [it seems] the king of the Jews!" which are probably (2234, 2236 foll.) to be read as a contemptuous exclamation expressed in an interrogative tone. It is clear that, as Chrysostom says, our Lord's reply is not a request for information. Pilate obviously did not say this from himself. Others had said it to him. In Greek questions, an absurdity is often put before the reality, thus: "When horses are injured do they become better, or worse?" "In states, are rulers without error, or liable to error?" "Do you permit [a bad ruler] to rule, or do you appoint another?" There is nothing in the literal English rendering of our Lord's reply to indicate the meaning conveyed by this Greek usage. But the meaning might be fairly paraphrased as "Will you venture to assert that you say this from yourself, or will you admit, as you must be conscious, that you were prompted by others?"

(β) μπερ

[2092] "HTEр occurs only once in N.T., namely in Jn xii. 43 "They loved the glory of men rather than (ep) (marg. væép) the glory of God." Chrysostom, in his comment, quotes (v. 44) "How can ye believe...since ye seek not the glory that is from the only God?" And perhaps this is almost the meaning here:-"the glory of men and not the glory of God." Compare 2 Macc. xiv. 42

1 [2090 a] In the Sermon on the Mount alone, it occurs about ten times. 2 [20906] Two of these contain indirect questions, vii. 17 “He shall know... whether it is from God or I speak from myself," viii. 14 "Ye know not whence I come or where I return."

* [2091 a] Steph. quoting Plato 335 B, 339 B, Xen. Cyrop. iii. 1. 12 (to which add ib. "Do you let him [i.e. the bad ruler] retain his wealth, or do you reduce him to poverty?").

A. VI.

113

8

"desiring [rather] to die nobly than [i.e. and not]...to be subjected (θέλων ἀποθανεῖν περὑποχείριος γενέσθαι),” and the variously interpreted Iliad i. 117 βούλομ ̓ ἐγὼ λαὸν σόον ἔμμεναι ἢ ἀπολέσθαι, where (Eustathius says) was explained as being "for ep," so as to mean emphatically "than," not "or." According to this distinction, whereas (1) pâλλov might have meant that they loved the glory of God somewhat but the glory of men more, (2) μâdλov πep suggests that they loved the glory of men, and the glory of God they loved not at all. Compare the only other passage where John uses μâλλov, iii. 19 "The light hath come into the world and men loved rather the darkness than the light (μâλλov tò σKótos † tò pos)." The likeness, and the unlikeness, are remarkable. The evangelist appears to condemn both "the world" and "the rulers," but the latter more severely. The "world" had perhaps some love for the light: the "rulers" had no love at all for the glory of God'. See 2685.

(ix) "Iva

(a) "Ina, in John, expresses, or implies, purpose

[2093] The frequency of iva in John (2686) illustrates in part his preference for colloquial as distinct from literary Greek, but in part also the tendency of his Gospel to lay stress on purpose, e.g. on the purpose of the Baptist's birth and mission2, on the purpose of the Son's mission3, on the purpose of His actions and words, and on the Father's purpose in appointing for Him these actions", which purpose may also be described as the Father's will. John's view is that actions are appointed for men in order that, in doing them, they may do the will of their Father; and the essence of the action consists in the motive, namely, to do that will. In English, "to do" often means "doing," having quite lost its old notion of "to doing," i.e. "toward doing," i.e. purpose: but in John-whatever may be the case in other writers-ira seems always to retain some notion, or suggestion, of purpose, or motive, as being the essence of action".

[2092 a] "Hπeр ("than") differs from ("or" or "than") in being nonambiguous and emphatic. 'Twép, v.r. for ňπep, substitutes a common for an uncommon word and weakens the sense.

2 i. 7, 8 ἵνα μαρτυρήσῃ, comp. i. 31 ἵνα φανερωθῇ.

3 iii. 17 etc.

4

v. 34.

5 v. 23, 36.

6 vi. 4ο τοῦτο γάρ ἐστιν τὸ θέλημα τ. πατρός μου ἵνα....

7 [2093 a] Jn does not use the infinitive of purpose with roû, or wρòs Tó, so that Bruder gives the article a priori we might expect him to use va as a substitute.

(B) "INA, in John, never merely appositional

you, that ye love (iva

[2094] If iva were merely appositional like our English "to," N.T. writers would be able to employ iva, like "to"-irrespective of good or evil, of positive or negative-in such sentences as "It is good, or evil, for thee to do this," "I command, or forbid, thee to do this." But iva can only be used with "good" and "command," not with "evil" and "forbid." The reason is that "goodness " and "command" suggest a positive object to be attained or a positive object in commanding; and object suggests purpose. "Evil" and "forbid" do not or at least not to the same extent. In xiii. 34, R.V. marg. has "A new commandment I give unto ayanâтe) one another; even as I loved you, that ye also may love (ἵνα καὶ ὑ. ἀγαπᾶτε) one another,” apparently taking the first ἵνα as introducing the substance of the command ("that ye love”), and the second as introducing its purpose "that ye may love." It seems better to give the same rendering in both cases, the second being an emphatic and much more definite repetition of the first. The meaning is, in both cases, "My command is, and my purpose is, that ye love one another." But in the second clause the kind of love is defined ("Even as I loved you").

[2095] Similarly in xv. 13 "Greater love hath no man than this (μείζονα ταύτης ἀγάπην οὐδεὶς ἔχει) that a man lay down his life (ἵνα TIS TYν YUXYν avrov On) for his friends," the iva clause (in view of the frequency of Johannine apposition) is best taken as being in

and the inf. as occurring Mk (15), Mt. (24), Lk. (c. 70), Jn (4) (thrice πpò тoû, once dià Tó). "Iva occurs in Jn almost as often (1726) as in all the Synoptists together.

[2093 ] In xii. 40 “in order that (wa) they may not see with their eyes" represents the divine purpose of " blinding" those who do not wish to see and this phrase, derived loosely from Isaiah (vi. to), is quoted by Mark (iv. 12) and Luke (viii. 10), but not in the parallel Matthew who avoids it (xiii. 13 8T...OÙ Bérovo, supplemented by xiii. 14 où un lônтe). When once the stupendous admission is made that evil in some sense may be decreed by God, there ceases to be any difficulty in xvi. 2, "The hour cometh [decrced] in order that whosoever killeth you shall think (ôóğŋ) he doeth God service." If persecution is "decreed," it must be decreed that some shall persecute; and the evil is not always made worse by the fact that a man persecutes, thinking that he doeth God service."

In v. 7, a depends on тoμov implied in ẽxw “I have no one [ready]." 1 [2094 a] In the following, there is a notion of some standard of excellence to be attained, something desired or needed, some customary privilege that is prized and asked for, i. 27 "I am not worthy that I should loose the shoe latchet," ii. 25 "He had no need that anyone should testify," xviii. 39 There is a custom [established] for you that I should release...." See 2104 a.

apposition to ταύτης [τῆς ἀ.], but ἵνα τις θῇ is not the same as τοῦ θεῖναι, For the love is, not "the laying down of life," but the spirit that prompts the laying down or stimulates one man that he may lay down his life for another. And this suggestion of motive or effort is latent in iva. So, too, iv. 34 "My meat is in order that I may do (iva monow) the will of him that sent me" implies that the "meat" consists in the will to do His will. Comp. xvii. 3 "This is eternal life, in order that they may know thee," which perhaps combines (1) "the effort to know thee," (2) “given to men that they may know thee."

[2096] In answer to the question of the Jews, "What are we to do in order that we may work the works of God?" Jesus replies (vi. 29) "This is the work of God [namely] in order that ye may believe," which appears to mean that the "works" are not of the nature assumed by the questioners (e.g. sabbath-keeping, alms-giving etc.) but of the nature of motive or purpose: and if they are to do the works it will be because they take into their hearts God's purpose and will, which is an effort to make them believe, literally, an effort "in order that ye may believe." Similarly vi. 40 "For this is the will of my Father [and His purpose and effort] in order that everyone that beholdeth the Son...may have life eternal," and xv. 12 (comp. xiii. 34) "This is my commandment [and purpose] in order that ye may love one another." The following passages shew that John, differing from Epictetus and others, never uses iva exactly for ότι οι ὥστε (2697).

(7) Special passages

[2097] In viii. 56 “Abraham, your father, rejoiced that he might see my day," the meaning is that Abraham, receiving the promise of the son in whom all the nations of the world were to be blessed, (Gen. xvii. 17) "laughed" for joy, being strengthened by God with hopeful faith, in order that, under God's providence, he might thus fulfil the overruling will of God working for the salvation of "the nations." Philo (i. 602-3) compares the" laughing" of Abraham to the "laughing" of the day in anticipation of the early dawn: and, playing on the meaning of the name of Isaac (i.e. "laughter") who was not yet born, he declares that "Abraham, so to speak, laughed before laughter existed, as the soul, through hope, rejoices before joy and delights before delight." The meaning is, that Abraham, being helped by God, performed a "work of God," namely, "believing "

and "rejoicing," in order that he might fulfil a purpose of God, namely, might see the day of the Messiah'. See also 2688-9.

[2098] ix. 2 "Rabbi, who sinned, this [man] or his parents, in order that he might be born blind?" is answered by Jesus in language that does not deny purpose but calls attention to an ulterior purpose: "Neither did this [man] sin, nor his parents, but [it came to pass] in order that the works of God might be manifested in him."

[2099] In xi. 14-15 "Lazarus is dead, and I am glad, on account of you, that ye may believe, because I was not there?," the first question is, What is the verb, expressed or implied, on which there depends the clause "that ye may believe"?

(1) The only verb expressed is xaípw: and, taken by themselves, the words "Lazarus is dead and I rejoice in order that ye may believe" might mean "I force myself to rejoice over it and to express my joy in order that ye may believe"-as a general, after the death of a brother in battle, might say to his soldiers, "I rejoice over it in order that you may be encouraged to follow his example." According to this view, the Son "rejoices" over His friend's death-foreseeing the triumph over death-being filled by the Father with joy in order that He may accomplish a work for the strengthening of the faith of the disciples.

[2100] (2) But we have not here xaípw and iva consecutively, (as above (2097) nyaddiáσaro iva). "For your sakes" intervenes. Now "for your sakes" implies that the speaker desires something for the sake of those spoken to. And, in answer to the question, "desiring what?” τί θέλων; the reply would be θέλων ἵνα πιστεύσητε, “desiring that ye may believe." Hence iva may depend upon féλo implied in di vμâs: “I rejoice for your sakes desiring that ye may believe."

[2101] (3) The next clause to consider is "because (or) I was not there." (a) This may depend upon "believe." Then it would mean, "that ye may believe in me because your faith has not been shaken at the spectacle of Lazarus dying in my presence when I, you might think, could have healed him." In this spirit, Martha and Mary say to Jesus, "If thou hadst been here, my brother had not died," and Martha may be supposed to add, "Yet even now [though

1 [2097 a] 'Ayaλiáoμai is never used in the Bible with va to mean "rejoice (to do)." Once, when meaning "rejoice to do," it is used with infin. (Ps. xix. 5) "rejoiceth to run (dpaμeîv) his course." For Origen's comment, see 2689.

Ο Λάζαρος ἀπέθανεν, καὶ χαίρω, δι ̓ ὑμᾶς, ἵνα πιστεύσητε, ὅτι οὐκ ἤμην ἐκεῖ. Ι have added a comma after χαίρω.