in John, we might render rapá "by the side of" or "in the bosom of." On the distinction between παρὰ τῷ πατρί and παρὰ τοῦ TаTρós in Jn viii. 38, see 2355—7.

III GENITIVE

(i) Absolute

[2028] Mark uses this construction somewhat monotonously for the most part to introduce the circumstances of a new narrative in such phrases as "when it was late," "when he was going forth," "while he was yet speaking" etc. In four of these instances the parallel Matthew and Luke employ the same construction'. Mark never uses it in Christ's words, except once in the Parable of the Sower2.

[2029] Matthew, in the Triple Tradition, uses it freely, like Mark, in the temporal clauses of narrative (often however with dé where Mark has κaí). He introduces it thrice in Christ's words, all in the Parable of the Sower and its explanation; and one of the three agrees with Mark3. As in Mark, the implied conjunction is "when" or "while," with perhaps one exception*.

[2030] In the Triple Tradition, Luke introduces it twice into Christ's Discourse on the Last Days in insertions peculiar to himself, once in Christ's instructions for the preparation of the Passover, and once in the words of our Lord at His arrest. Luke appears to use it causally in xxiii. 44-5 "There came a darkness...the sun failing, or, being eclipsed," and quasi-causally in xxii. 55 "Now as they had lighted (Tepiaчávтwv de) a fire...," xxiv. 5 "Now as they were terrified (ἐμφόβων δὲ γενομένων).” Except in these three dè

1 [2028 a] Mk i. 32, ix. 9, xi. 27, xiv. 43, and parall. Mt.-Lk. The vb. is not the same in all these cases. I have not noticed more than these four agreements of Mt.-Lk. with Mk in about 30 instances of the genit. abs. in Mk. In Mk the clause is almost always preceded by κal.

2 [20286] Μk iv. 17 εἶτα γενομένης θλίψεως, Mt. xiii. 21 γενομένης δὲ θλίψεως, Lk. viii. 13 καὶ ἐν καιρῷ πειρασμοῦ.

3 Mt. xiii. 6, 19, 21.

4 [2029 α] Μt. xxvi. 6ο καὶ οὐχ εὗρον πολλῶν προσελθόντων ψευδομαρτύρων.

5 Lk. xxi. 26 αποψυχόντων ἀνθρώπων, xxi. 28 ἀρχομένων δὲ τούτων γίνεσθαι.

6 Lk. xxii. 1o Ἰδοὺ εἰσελθόντων ὑμῶν εἰς τὴν πόλιν (Μk xiv. 13, Mt. xxvi. 18 Υπάγετε εἰς τὴν πόλιν).

7 Lk. xxii. 53 καθ ̓ ἡμέραν ὄντος μου (Mk xiv. 49 ἤμην, Mt. xxvi. 55 ἐκαθεζόμην).

passages, Luke appears, like Matthew and Mark, to imply "when" or "while."

[2031] In no case does John use the genitive absolute in recording Christ's words. Elsewhere he employs it with more elasticity of meaning than is found in the Triple Tradition. A causal meaning ("as" or "because") is implied, probably or certainly, in ii. 3, v. 13, vi. 17. 66 Though" is certainly implied in xii. 37, xxi. 11, and perhaps in xx. 19 "There cometh Jesus, the doors being shut, i.e. (?) though the doors were shut'."

(ii) Objective or subjective

[2032] In Greek, as in English, such a phrase as "the love of God" may imply one of two propositions :-(1) "God (subject) loves man," (2) "Man loves God (object)." "Of God," if it implies the former, is called a subjective genitive; if the latter, an objective genitive. "The love of God" occurs frequently in the Johannine Epistle but only once in the Gospel, v. 42 "But I know you, that ye have not the love of God in you,” ἀλλὰ ἔγνωκα ὑμᾶς ὅτι τὴν ἀγάπην τοῦ θεοῦ οὐκ ἔχετε ἐν ἑαυτοῖς, where the question arises whether the genitive is subjective or objective. The following considerations make it probable that in the Gospel, as in the Epistle, it is subjective, "the love that God gives to man."

[2033] In the first place, ¿yúŋ in N.T. is very rarely used with objective genitive, perhaps only once or twice. It is never thus

1 [2031 a] The meaning "though" is necessitated by the context in xii. 37 "He having wrought so many signs they did not believe," that is, " though he had wrought." This suggests that in Lk. xxii. 53 ovтos may be intended to mean, though I was [in the temple by day, ye did not lay hands on me]."

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2 [2033 a] Westcott, on 1 Jn ii. 5, says that the genit. with dy. "once marks the object of love, 2 Thess. ii. 10 ʼn ảy. Tŷs ȧλŋ0eías.” He omits Lk. xi. 42 παρέρχεσθε τὴν κρίσιν καὶ τὴν ἀγάπην τοῦ θεοῦ. There it is possible that the words mean "ye neglect God's judgment and God's love," i.e. the way in which God judges and loves: "Ye neglect the things that God condemns and God loves, and condemn the things He loves, and love the things He condemns." But Cyril (Cramer) assumes the meaning to be ȧyán ʼn eis eóv (Winer and Alford are silent) and most people would probably take the meaning to be "[just] judgment and love toward God."

[20336] In 2 Thess. iii. 5 "And [may] the Lord guide your heart safe (KATEVÕÚVαι VμŵV T. Kapdlav) into the love of God,” the regular Pauline usage would of itself suffice to make it almost certain that it means "the love of God [toward men]" (like "the peace of God") sometimes regarded (Rom. v. 5) as a gift of God shed forth in man's heart, but here regarded as a goal or haven. This is confirmed

used by St Paul, who always regards "the love of God," and "the love of Christ," as, so to speak, divine inmates in man's heart, sent from God. As "the peace of God" constrains a man to be peaceful, and "the [social] fellowship of the Holy Spirit" constrains him to be social, so "the love of God" constrains him to be loving, both to God his Father and to men the children of the Father. Thus "the love of God" for man causes "the love of God" in man, i.e. causes man to love God. But this consequent love of man for God or for Christ is not what St Paul primarily means when he says, "the love of Christ constraineth us." He means Christ's love as a divine fire in the heart, driving out the fires of "this world." This is invariably the meaning of the phrase in the Pauline Epistles.

[2034] And this, almost (if not quite) always, holds good in the very numerous instances in which the Johannine Epistle mentions "the love of God." The writer thinks of it as a gift, spirit, or germ, that comes from God not from ourselves ("Not that we loved God but that He loved us "). It enables us to love, as the light of the sun enables us to see; but, as the latter remains "the light of the sun," so the former remains "the love of God." "The love of God" in our heart, like any other vital germ, needs to be (1 Jn ii. 5) "perfected" by responsive human action, and it cannot grow and expand without pushing out the love of the world'.

[2035] Greek scholars, familiar with ȧyánŋ meaning "the [feeling of] love," may sometimes think that John uses the article thus. But apparently he never does. The context always indicates that he uses "the love" (as Jews used "the Name" and "the Will ") to mean "the love of God revealed to men in Christ," or "the real love as distinct from love so called by the world," or "the love wherewith the Son loved us and bade us love one another." This seems to be the meaning in 1 Jn iii. 16 "Herein know we the love

by the use of KaTev@úvw in Lk i. 79 "guide safely into the way of peace" and by general Greek usage (Steph.), especially by that of Clem. Alex. 654 (Steph., but ? ref.) "guide the ship safe,” and by Ps. cxli. 2 (LXX) “Let my prayer go straight [to heaven] as incense before thee (katev@vvłńtw)” quoted by Clem. Alex. 857. In the Pauline Epistles, both "the love of God" and "the love of Christ" always mean the love of God, or of Christ, for us.

1 [2034 a] But the writer does not speak of "the love of the world" as an entity in the same way in which he speaks of "the love of God." He prefers the verb, thus (1 Jn ii. 15) “if any man love the world the love of the Father is not in him." It is the Epistle of St James that speaks of (iv. 4) “the friendship of the world."

[revealed by the Son of God] because he laid down his life for us," and in 1 Jn iii. 23-iv. 10 “Let us love one another as he gave commandment to us.... Let us love one another, because the love [wherewith he commanded us to love one another] is from God...... Herein the love of God was manifested in us because he hath sent his only begotten Son......herein is the love [of God], not because we have loved God, but because he loved us." Unloving conduct on the part of a Christian is a proof that this divine entity is not in his soul, 1 Jn iii. 17 "Whoso shutteth up his heart...how abideth the love of God in him?"

[2036] These statements about "the [real] love" or "the love [of God]" as an entity given to men and abiding in men, reach a climax in the doctrine that God Himself is "love," and that "the love of God" has the power of expelling fear if only it is allowed scope so as to be perfected. The writer begins by saying "And as for us, our whole knowledge, yea, our whole faith, consists in the love that God hath in us'." That is to say, as we are in the sunlight even

1 [2036 «] : Jn iv. 16 καὶ ἡμεῖς ἐγνώκαμεν καὶ πεπιστεύκαμεν τὴν ἀγάπην ἣν ἔχει ó leòs év ηuîv. The writer seems to have begun with the intention of saying "We have a full knowledge of the love." Then it occurs to him that not only our knowledge, but our faith is wrapped up in this "love." To have used the dative "we fully trust to the love of God" would not have expressed the meaning, which is that, as we may be said to "love [with] love” (cogn. accus. ¿yaπâv áɣáæŋv (2014)), so we may be said to "trust [with] trust" (miσTevσai miσT), or rather to trust with something more than trust-to "trust [with] love (IOTEÛσαι ȧyáπηv).” Love is the atmosphere breathed by faith as well as the object of knowledge.

[2036 6] As to 1 Jn iv. 16 тǹv åɣáæŋv ĥv éxei o leòs év ηuîv, Westcott gives several instances of ἀγ. ἔχειν but none of ἀγ. ἔχειν ἔν τινι except Jn xiii. 35 ἐὰν ἀγ. ἔχητε ἐν ἀλλήλοις, where ἐν ἀλλήλοις—a phrase capable of being applied to intercourse hostile as well as friendly (Aesch. Prom. 200 σráσis r' év åλλýλocow: but mostly friendly, Mk ix. 50 eipnvevete èv à., Rom. xv. 5 Tò avтò øpoveîv év ȧ.)— appears to be disconnected from exeu and to mean "in your dealings with one another." Perhaps "keep love" is intended to come as a climax: xiii. 34-5 "Love one another......as I loved you, love one another......thus shall men know you to be my disciples if ye keep love among one another." In Phil. ii. 1—2, "Comfort in Christ...consolation of love...fellowship of the Spirit...having the same love," the meaning seems to be that the Philippians are to "keep" in their hearts one and "the same " quickening, consoling and comforting “love [of Christ]" as also the same "Spirit [of Christ]." In 1 Pet. iv. 8 tǹv eis éautoùs dy. EKTEV EXOVTES the meaning is, "keeping constantly in the full tension of exercise and practice, not letting it become slack." By analogy-until there can be found some instances where dy. exw ev σol means "I have love for thee "--we must take I Jn iv. 16 "the love that God hath in us" to mean "the spark, or spirit, or vitalising power, of love, which God keeps in our hearts as His representative and as our comforter."

while the sunlight is in us, so it is with love. Then he proceeds, "God is love, and he that abideth in the love [of God] abideth in God, and God [abideth] in him. Herein hath the love [of God] been perfected [working in our souls] along with us... Fear hath no existence in the love [of God], but the perfected love [of God]' casteth out fear......We (emph.) are loving [now, simply] because he first loved us?."

[2037] In the following passage, however, the objective genitive seems at first sight intended, 1 Jn v. 2-3" Herein know we that we are loving the children of God when we are loving God and doing his commandments. For this is the love of God (lit.) in order that (iva) we should be keeping his commandments...." Here some might suggest the following paraphrase: "Hereby we know that we are loving God's children, not selfishly as our playthings or amusements, but genuinely as our brethren, when we are loving God Himself and doing His will: for Our love of God can only be shewn in the effort to fulfil His will." But the "effort," or purpose, may, in this passage, be divine, not human. For (1) it will be shewn (2093 foll.) that, when our Lord says "This is my commandment in order that ye may love one another," an "effort," or "object," is implied on the part of the Son for the good of men, and (2) the Johannine phrase avrη éσTIV regularly introduces the definition of something that comes not from man, but from God (2396-7). Hence we may with more probability paraphrase 1 Jn v. 2— -3 as follows: Hereby know we that we are loving the children of God [with the real love] when we are loving God in our hearts and doing His will with our hands:-for this is the meaning and purpose of the love of God [His gift in our hearts, namely] that we should be keeping His commandments...." This agrees with what is said elsewhere, "If a man does not do God's will, how dwelleth the love of God in him?" So here, "What is the object of the love of God in you except that you should do His will?"

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11 Jn iv. 16-18 ʼn тeλeía áɣánŋ, i.e. perfected, or fullgrown, in us, corresponding to (iv. 17) τετελειωμένη.

* [2036 c] 1 Jn iv. 19 ἡμεῖς ἀγαπῶμεν, ὅτι αὐτὸς πρῶτος ἠγάπησεν ἡμᾶς. I have quoted Jn ii. 5-iv. 19 fully, because Lightfoot (2 Thess. iii. 5) refers to these passages as indicating that "it is very seldom possible... to separate" the meaning "love of God for us" from the meaning "our love for God"-a conclusion different from the one maintained above.

3 The words italicised are Westcott's paraphrase of αὕτη γάρ ἐστιν ἡ ἀγάπη τοῦ θεοῦ ἵνα τὰς ἐντολὰς αὐτοῦ τηρῶμεν.